GPAT-2015 PAPER
{Answers are on the end page of question Paper}
1. Which type of alkaloid is present in Vinca?
(a) Ergot (b) Tropane (c) Indole (d) Quinoline
2. What is the biological source of Alexandrian Senna
(a) Cassia aungustifolia (b) Cassia acutifolia (c) Cassia Bravifolia (d) Cassia Nerifolia
3. In the following drug find out the Potassium Sparing Diuretics
(a) Milrinone (b) Thiazide (c) Spironolactone (d) Amilioride
4. How the wetting agent act in the suspension
(a) Increase contact angle between substance and solvent
(b) Reduce contact angle between substance and solvent
(c) No change in contact angle between substance and solvent
(d) None of the above
5. Which phase of suspension is reversible phase
(a) Cracking (b) Creaming (c) Phase Inversion (d) Coalscence
6. Which eye infection is also called as ‘Pink Eye’ infection
(a) Fungal keratitis (b) Viral keratitis (c) Conjunctivitis (d) Myopia
7. Match compounds with the pathway they inhibit
(1) Vancoycin (P) Folate metabolism
(2) Rifampin (Q) DNA synthesis
(3) Puromycin (R) Protein synthesis
(4) Ciprofloxacin (S) RNA synthesis
(T) Cell wall synthesis
(a) 1-T, 2-S, 3-R, 4-Q
(b) 1-R, 2-S, 3-T, 4-P
(c) 1-Q, 2-R, 3-T, 4-Q
(d) 1-T, 2-Q, 3-P, 4-S
8. The given reaction in an example of
(a) Arndt-Eistert homologation
(b) Mannich reaction
(c) Michael addition
(d) Chichibabin amination reaction
9. What is the 6-methyl derivative of erythromycin
(a) Azithromycin (b) Roxithromycin (c) Clarithromycin (d) Clindamycin
10. In the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis, only one of the following drugs will be used as a drug of choice
(a) Neostigmine (b) Pyridostigmine (c) Physostigmine (d) Edrophoinum
11. Methyl [5(proopylthio)-1H-benzoimidazol-2yl] carbamate is Geneva name of which of the following drug
(a) Mebendazole (b) Albendazole (c) Thibendazole (d) Triclabendazole
12. Which of the following is oil of fruit pulp
(a) Arachis oil (b) Castor oil (c) Olive oil (d) Apricot oil
13. What is true about bioavailability
(a) Amount of unbound drug (Free drug reaching systemic circulation)
(b) Amount of bound Drug
(c) Amount of metabolite drug
(d) Amount of Excreted Drug
14. Polymorphs in pharmaceutical solids are detected by which technique
(a) MS (b) LC-MS (c) Solid state NMR (d) Coulter counter
15. A series of α- acylureido penicillin’s like azlocillin, mezloacillin, and piperacillin are superior because of
(a) Reduced acid hydrolysis
(b) Increased β - lactmase resistance
(c) Improved penetration through the cell envelop
(d) Slow rate of metabolism
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16. Bacillus subtilis is used in assay of which antibiotics
(a) Penicillin (b) Cephalosporin (c) Vancomycin (d) Streptomycin
17. Which of the following titrations will always have an equivalence point at a pH > 7.00
(a) Weak acid with a weak base
(b) Strong acid with a weak base
(c) Weak acid with a strong base
(d) None of the above
18. Inadequate drying during coating of tablet leads to which coating defect
(a) Chipping (b) Lamination (c) Mottling (d) Lamination
19. Match the crude drug with its biological source
(1) Pale catechu (P) Conium naculatum
(2) Clove (Q) Cymapsistetragonoloba
(3) Gaur bean (R) Uncariagambir
(4) Hemlock (S) Syzygiumaromaticum
(a) 1-Q, 2-P, 3-S, 4-R (b) 1-Q, 2-S, 3-R, 4-P (c) 1-R, 2-S, 3-Q, 4-P (d) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q
20. Which of the following plot indicates the effects of antagonist on receptors
(a) Michaelis-Menten plots (b) Line weaver burk Plots (c) Displacement plots (d) Schild plots
21. All of the following statements concerning zero-order degradation are true except
(a) Its rate is independent of the concentration
(b) A plot of con Vs time gives a straight line on reactilinear paper and a slope is a rate constant
(c) Its half-life is a changing parameter
(d) Its concentration remains unchanged with respectto time
22. The liquefaction time of cocoa butter of hydrogenated vegetable oil based suppositories is
(a) 30-50 min (b) 30-40 min (c) 11-17 min (d) 3-7 min
23. Which of the following is most likely to undergo lysis
(a) A cell losing water from its cytoplasm
(b) A cell with inact, multilayer peptidoglycan cell wall
(c) A cell with disturbed pentaglycine bridges in its cell wall
(d) A cell a hydrophilic outermost layer in its cell wall
24. Match the drugs with the disease for which it is prescribed
(1) Bedaquline (P) Anitdiabetic
(2) Sitagliptin (Q) Anitiarrrhythmic
(3) Mexilitine (R) Antidipressant
(4) Paraoxitine (S) Antituberualr
(a) 1-S, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-R
(b) 1-S, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-R
(c) 1-Q, 2-P, 3-R, 4-S
(d) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q
25. Which micro-organism used in hairy root culture
(a) Agrobact rhiaogens (b) A. tumefaciens
(c) N. tabacum (d) Solanum chrysotrichum
26. Delayed disintegration in tablet is a result of
(a) Large force of compression (b) Small force of compression
(c) Higher amount of granule (d) Low amount of granule
27. Match drugs with their receptor that they inhibit
(1) 5HT1A agonist (P) Cisapride
(2) 5HT3 antagonist (Q) Ketanserine
(3) 5HT2A antagonist (R) Ondensetron
(4) 5HT4 agonist (S) Buspiron
(a) 1-S, 2-R, 3-Q,4-P
(b) 1-R, 2-S, 3-T, 4-P
(c) 1-Q, 2-R, 3-T, 4-Q
(d) 1-T, 2-Q, 3-P, 4-S
28. Passive immunity in new born babies is due to
(a) IgG (b) IgM (c) IgE (d) IgA
29. Upper consolute temperature and lower consolute temperature are related to
(a) CMC temp (b) Kraft Temp
(c) Cloud temp (d) Absolute temp
30. Compact size, low weight mass instrument is:
(a) EI-TOF (b) MALDI-Quadrapole (c) MALDI-TOF (d) Ion-Trap
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31. A Pharmaceutical company plans to market a generic version of a drug produce whose patent has expired has expire (d) Which type of documentation must be submitted to the FDA
(a) IND (b) NDA (c) ANDA (d) SNDA & Letter of intent
32. Which of the following does not produce azeotropic mixture with water
(a) Methanol (b) Ethanol (c) Propanol (d) Isopropanol
33. For a particular durg, the rate of absorption but not the extent of the absorption of GIT, is affected by presence of food in GIT then taking the drug with food will result in
(a) Smaller area under the plasma drug concentration time curve
(b) Smaller maximal plasma drug concentration
(c) Smaller time at which the maximal plasma drug concentration occurs
(d) Smaller fractional bioavailability and total clearance
34. According to USP Alcohol contains
(a) 94.9 to 96% Ethanol (b) 94.9 to 96% Methanol (c) 50% Ethanol (d) 50% Methanol
35. What does in mean that a cell is polyploid
(a) That is contains more than 2 copies of one or a few of its of chromosomes
(b) That is contains more than 2 copies of a full set of homologous chromosomes
(c) That is contains more than 2 copies of its sex chromosome
(d) That is contains more than 2 copies of its autosomal chromosomes
36. Amount of dextrose in large volume infusion fluids
(a) 5% w/v (b) 10% w/v (c) 25% w/v (d) 50% w/v
37. ______________, Anthelmintics having Immunosuppressant activity.
(a) Piperazine (b) Levamisole (c) Ivermectin (d) Niclosamide
38. Choose correct statement for PEGylation:
(A) Used to enhance In-vivo half-life of smaller Peptides and proteins
(B) Avoidance of Reticulo-endothelial (RES) clearance
(C) Reduce clearance rate through kidney
(D) All
39. Characteristics feature if hemorrhagic dengue fever is
(a) Reduction in platelet count
(b) Reduction in RBC count
(c) Reduction in coagulation factors
(d) Increased RBC
40. The carbonyl starching frequency for simple aldehydes, ketones, and carboxylic acids is about 1710 cm-1 , where as the carbonyl stretching frequency for esters is about ..................... cm-1
(a) 1650 (b) 1700 (c) 1750 (d) 1850
41. Plarographic method of analysis to obtain individual amounts of Cu2+ and Cd2+ in a given mixture of the two ions (Cu2+ and Cd2+) is achieved by measuring their
(a) Half-wave potentials
(b) Migration currents
(c) Decomposition potentials
(d) Diffusion currents
42. Consider the reaction: A+B ≤≥ C
The unit of the thermodynamic equilibrium constant for the reaction is
(a) mol L-1 (b) L mol-1 (c) mol2 L-2 (d) Dimensionless
43. ______________, system does not have orifice to release the drug.
(a) Elementary Osmotic Pump
(b) L-OROS
(c) Sandwich Osmotic Pump Tablet
(d) Controlled Porosity Osmotic Pump Tablet
44. Sanguinarine belongs to the subgroup of:
(a) Morphinans
(b) Benzyl isoquinolines
(c) Phthalide isoquinolines
(d) Benzophenanthrenes
45. Identify the IUPAC of dexamethasone
(a) 2-Chloro-6α, 9α-difluoro-11α, 17, 21-trihydroxy-16α-methylpregna-1,4-dien-3, 20-dione
(b) 9α-Fluoro-11β, 17α, 21-trihydroxy-16β-methylpregna-1, 4-diene-3, 20-dione
(c) 9α-Fluoro-11β, 17α, 21-trihydroxy-16β-methylpregna-1, 4-diene-3, 20-dione
(d) 6α-Fluoro-11α, 21-dihydroxy-16α-methylpregna-1, 4-diene-3. 20-dione
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46. Tamoxifen is nonsteroidal drug acting at steroid receptor(s) It produces which type of effects
(P) Androgen (Q) Antiestrogen (R) Antiprogestogen (S) Estrogen
(a) P and Q
(b) Q and S
(c) Q and R
(d) R and S
47. Which enzymes is used by the HIV to form DNA in the host cell
(a) Restriction endonuclease (b) DNA-directed polymerase only
(c) Reverse transcriptate only (d) Both (b)and (c)
48. ‘Sparging’ is the process where
(a) Silanol groups react with trimethylsilyl group
(b) An inert has is bubbled through the solvent reservoir to remove dissolved gases
(c) Solvents are mixed together in a fixed ratio
(d) Column is washed with solvents from nonpolar to polar and reverse
49. Morphine does not cause:
(a) Constriction of pupil (b) CNS depression (c) Respiratory depression (d) Diarrhoea
50. Which of the following is not recommended in patients with renal insufficiency or cardiac dysfunction
(a) Aloe (b) Bisacodyl (c) Isapghol (d) Magnesium hydroxide
51. Higuchi model is applicable to drug that is............. In the formulation
(a) Dissolved in formulation
(b) Dispersed in formulation
(c) Chemically bound to carrier in formulation
(d) Osmotically controlled in the formulation
52. Which of the following in correct about parenteral nutrition
(a) Parentral nutrition solutions are hypertonic solutionsand IV fluids are isotonic
(b) Parentralnutribtionsolutions and IV preparations are isotonic solutions
(c) Parentrtal nutrition solutions are hypertonic solutions and IV fluids are isotonic
(d) Parentral nutrition solutions can be supplemented with mediacations
53. Cyclic AMP (cAMP) is an important second messenger in signal transduction pathway(s)Which enzyme
catalyzes the generation/accumulation of cAMP after a receptor – ligand interaction
(a) Protein kinase A
(b) cAMP phosphodiesterase
(c) Guanylyl cyclase
(d) Adenylate cyclase
54. Which of the following in not include in immunization programme as per WHO recommendations for all children
(a) BCG (b) Oral polio (c) Measels (d) Typhoid
55. Match the given condition with appropriate drug used for its treatment
(1) Pernicious anemia (P) Erythropetin
(2) Meagaloblastic anemia (Q) Oprelvekin
(3) Anemia associated with chronic renal failure (R) Ratenteral Vitamin B12
(4) Thrombocypeniadue to cancer chemotherapy (S) Folic acid
(a) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S (b) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q (c) 1-R, 2-Q, 3-S, 4-P (d) 1-R, 2-P, 3-S, 4-Q
56. In mammals, The major fat in adipose tissue is:
(a) Triglyceride (b) Cholesterol (c) Sphingophospholipids (d) Phospholipids
57. Plarographic method of analysis to obtain individual amounts of Cu2+ and Cd2+ in a given mixture of the two ions (Cu2+ and Cd2+) is achieved by measuring their
(a) Half-wave potentials
(b) Migration currents
(c) Decomposition potentials
(d) Diffusion currents
58. What is the objective of trademark
(a) To claim exclusive properties of products or services
(b) To claim innovation of products or services
(c) To deal with market place of expressive ideas
(d) To protect consumers from being misled
59. Turbulent flow is exhibited by fluids whose
(a) Re<40’ (b) Re>40’ (c) Re=40 (d) All of the above
60. Characteristics of drug-protein binding
(P) Often parallels drug lipid solubility
(Q) Drug-plasma albumin binding tends to be relatively nonselective
(R) Acidic drugs bind to albumin while basic drug bind to glycoproteins
(S) In rheumatoid arthritis patients, increased alpha1- acidic glycoprotein tends to promote increased lidocaine protein binding
(a) P and Q (b) P, Q and R (c) P, Q, R and S (d) P and R
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61. C=O stretchings are very strong and easily observable bands in IR spectroscopy. However in the IR spectrum
of glucose C=O absorption band is not seen. Why
(a) In glucose, C=O group is not terminal
(b) In glucose C=O group is absent
(c) In glucose, hemiacetal group is present
(d) In glucose, hemiketal group is present
62. What is/are use/s of phenol coefficient
(a) Tocompare a disinfectant’s killing efficacy to that of phenol
(b) To determine the dilution at which the disinfectant is to be used
(c) To determine the purity of disinfectant
(d) All of the above
63. Arrange the following esters as per decreasing order of rate of saponification
(I) Ethyl benzoate
(II) Ethyl p- methoxybenzoate
(III) Ethyl p- chlorobenzoate
(IV) Ethyl p-nitrobenzoate
(a) I>II>III>IV
(b) IV>III>II>I
(c) IV>III>I>II
(d) II>IV>I>III
64. Which of the following statements about bentonite are CORRECT
(P) Gycerin is used to pre-wet the bentonite prior to mixing with water to form its gel
(Q) Aqueous bentonite suspensions retain their viscosity above pH 6 but are precipitated by acids
(R) MgO increase gel formation while alcohol in significant amounts can precipitate bentonite gel
(S) Betonite exhibits rheopexy
(a) P and Q (b) Q and R (c) P,Q and R (d) P, Q, R and S
65. Acid insoluble ash of a leaf is called as
(a) Earthy matter & silica (b) Inorganic content (c) Organic Content (d) All of the above
66. Grape fruit juice is P- glycoprotein and CYP40 enzyme inhibitor . if drug X is degraded by proteolytic enzymes, administration of grapefruit juice with X
(a) Increase bioavailability of X
(b) Decrease Bioavailability of X
(c) Does not affect bioavailability of X
(d) Cause unexpected action of X
67. Tannins give positive test for all of the following EXCEPT
(P) Goldebeater skin test (Q) Phenazone (R) Biuret test (S) FeCl3
(a) P and Q
(b) Q and R
(c) P, Q and R
(d) P,Q and S
68. Vigabatrin is a GABA analogue that potentiates action of GABA in the brain because it
(a) Binds to GABA receptor and acts as agonist
(b) Inhibits GABA transaminase
(c) Blocks NMDA receptor via the glycine binding site
(d) Inhibits neuronal reuptake of GABA from synapses
69. Drug that increases systolic B.P. but reduces diastolic B.P.
(a) Isoproterenol (b) Epinephrine (c) Nor Epinephrine (d) Propranol
70. Which of the following are characteristics for colloid mills
(P) Due to centrifugal forces, the mill undergoes periodical vibratory movement
(Q) Particles smaller than 1 μm can be obtained with them
(R) The main types of colloid mills are hammer , turbine and dial mills
(S) The principle of their operation is based on the abrasion of particles at high speed
(a) Only, P, Q and R are correct (b) Only P and R are correct
(c) Only Q and S are correct (d) P, Q, R and S are correct
71. Inflamation of soft tissue due to hyaluronidase is called as
(a) Tendinitis (b) Bursitis (c) Cellulitics (d) Cumulative Injury Disorder (CID)
72. The hydroxyl derivative of cymene is called as what
(P) Thymol (Q) Carvacrol (R) Menthol (S) Cumene
(a) P, Q, R and S (b) P, Q , and R (c) P and Q (d) Only P
73. Which of the following are the correct properties of ferroin? Ferroin is
(P) 1, 10-phnathroline
(Q) A bidentate ligand complex
(R) Red in reduced form
(S) Blue in oxidized form
(a) P and Q (b) R and S (c) P, R and S (d) P, Q, R and S
74. Each of the following is a glycosaminoglycan dengue fever is
(a) Chondroitin and dermatan
(b) Heparan and heparin
(c) Hyaluronic acid and keratin
(d) Keratin and chitin
75. If X is an equivalent of silver deposited is silver coulometer and Y is an equipment of copper deposited in copper coulometer when constant current is passed through the electrochemical cell for the same time which of the following is correct
(a) X =Y (b) X = 2Y (c) X = Y/2 (d) 2X =Y
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