Q1 : Punishment for illegal possession in small quantity for personal consumption of cocaine, morphine, diacetyl-morphine or any other narcotic drug or any psychotropic substance as may be specified in this behalf by the Central Government, by notification in the Official Gazette is
(a) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year or with fine or with both.
(b) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years or with fine or with both.
(c) Rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than ten years but which may extend to twenty years and shall
also be liable to fine which shall not be less than one lakh rupees but which may extend to two lakh rupees.
(d) Rigorous imprisonment for a term which may extend to ten years and shall also be liable to fine which may extend to one
lakh rupees.
Key: A
Q2 : Retail price of a formulation can be calculated using the formula:
(a) R.P = (M.C. - C.C. + P.M. + P.C.) x (1 + MAPE/100) + E.D.
(b) R.P = (M.C. + C.C. - P.M. + P.C.) x (1 + MAPE/100) + E.D.
(c) R.P = (M.C. + C.C. + P.M. - P.C.) x (1 + MAPE/100) + E.D.
(d) R.P = (M.C. + C.C. + P.M. + P.C.) x (1 + MAPE/100) + E.D.
Key: D
Q3 : As per Drugs and Cosmetics Act Prescription Drugs are included in
(a) Schedule C
(b) Schedule H
(c) Schedule P
(d) Schedule X
Key: B
Q4 : Schedule W to the Drug Rules refers to
(a) List of prescription drugs
(b) List of drugs which are to be marketed under generic names only
(c) List of drugs exempted from import of drugs
(d) Standards for patent or proprietary medicines
Key: B
Q5 : The list of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances that are prohibited from import into and export from India is
found in
(a) Schedule I
(b) Schedule II
(c) Schedule III
(d) Schedule IV
Key: A
Q6 : Form 2, under Schedule A refers to
(a) Memorandum to the Central Drugs Laboratory.
(b) Application for licence to import drugs specified in Schedule X to the drugs and Cosmetics Rules 1945.
(c) Form of undertaking to accompany an application for an import licence.
(d) Certificate of test or analysis by the Central Drugs Laboratory.
Key: D
Q7 : Schedule L1 refers to
(a) Good manufacturing practices
(b) Good laboratory practices
(c) GMP-Homeo medicines
(d) Factory medical devices
Key: B
Q8 : Cultivation of poppy seeds is taken only in the areas notified by the Central government in three states of
(a) Rajasthan, Gujarat and Uttar Pradesh.
(b) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
(c) Rajasthan, Himachal Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
(d) Rajasthan, West Bengal and Uttar Pradesh.
Key: B
Q9 : As per DPCO 2013, MRP of a scheduled formulation is " ceiling price + Local Taxes applicable " whereas the MRP for a
new drug will be
(a) Retail price fixed by Manufacturer + Local Taxes applicable
(b) Retail price fixed by Govt + Local Taxes applicable
(c) Retail price fixed by Distributor + Local Taxes applicable
(d) Retail price fixed by Retailer + Local Taxes applicable
Key: B
Q10 : Drugs are declared as essential , and accordingly put under "Essential Commodities Act" by Ministry of Chemicals and
Fertilizers through
(a) Narcotic and Psychotropic Substances Act 1985
(b) Drugs Price Control Order 2013
(c) Drugs and Magic Remedies Act 1954a
(d) Drugs & Cosmetics Act 1940
Key: B
Q11 : Which of the following is a true statement?
(a) The minimum air changes for Grade B and C areas shall be not less than 10 air changes per hour having appropriate HEPA
filters.
(b) The minimum air changes for Grade B and C areas shall be not less than 20 air changes per hour having appropriate HEPA
filters.
(c) The minimum air changes for Grade B and C areas shall be not less than 30 air changes per hour having appropriate HEPA
filters.
(d) The minimum air changes for Grade B and C areas shall be not less than 40 air changes per hour having appropriate HEPA
filters
Key : B
Q12 : Which among the following is a 'Random Error'?
(a) Instrumental Error
(b) Erratic Error
(c) Methodic Error
(d) Proportional error
Key: B
Q13 : The dose given to reduce the time required for onset of the full therapeuatic effect of a drug is called
(a) Priming dose
(b) Maintenance dose
(c) Overnight dose
(d) Paediatric dose
Key: A
Q14 : Calibration of instrument is an important consideration in measurement system. The errors due to instruments being
out of calibration can be rectified by
(a) Increasing the frequency of recalibration
(b) Increasing the temperature coefficient
(c) Increasing the susceptibility of measuring instrument
(d) Decreasing the frequency of recalibration
Key : A
Q15 : The production or introduction of a new thing for the first time by exercising one's own mind, skill and labour is known
as
(a) Trademark
(b) Patent
(c) Invention
(d) Copyright
Key: C
Q16 : Microspheres are spherical particles ranging
(a) 10 - 1000 nm
(b) 1 - 1000 nm
(c) 1 - 5000 nm
(d) 1 - 200 nm
Key: B
Q17 : Frequency of pH meter calibration is-
(a) Only once after replacement of glass electrode
(b) Once a week
(c) Once a day
(d) Every time on usage
Key : C
Q18 : The error between mean of finite data set and mean of infinite data set is known as
(a) True error of the mean
(b) Standard error of the mean
(c) Finite error
(d) Infinite error
Key : B
Q19 : Microbial challenge test to demonstrate the capability of a filter is carried out by using
(a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(b) Streptomyces Actinomyces
(c) Bacillus anthracis
(d) Pseudomonas diminuta
Key: D
Q 20 : Which equation is used to predict the stability of the drug at room temperature from experiments at increased
temperature?
(a) Michaelis-Menten equation
(b) Arrhenuis equation
(c) Henderson-Hasselbelch equation
(d) Noyes-Whitney equation
Key: B
Q21 : Which of the following criteria is suitable for selecting a drug for controlled release dosage form?
(a) Drugs with an elimination half life of <2 hours.
(b) Drugs with a dose of <100 mg.
(c) Drugs that are administered in large doses.
(d) Highly potent drugs.
Key: B
Q22 : Class II drugs have
(a) High solubility and high permeability.
(b) Low solubility and high permeability.
(c) High solubility and low permeability.
(d) Low solubility and low permeability.
Key: B
Q23 : Transportation of dry bulk materials through a pipeline by negative or positive pressure air stream is called
(a) Belt Conveyer
(b) Chain Conveyer
(c) Roller Conveyer
(d) Pneumatic Conveyer
Key: D
Q24 : Responsibilities of the quality unit(s) would not involve in:
(a) Releasing or rejecting all APIs
(b) Evaluating proposed changes in process
(c) Internal audits (self-inspection)
(d) Analysis of raw materials
Key : B
Q25 : In a chromatogram, the equation (Vr - Vo) / Vo is used to express-
(a) Capacity factor
(b) Resolution factor
(c) Symmetry factor
(d) Plate factor
Key : A
Q26 : Indian Pharmacopoeia specifies that the water for injection shall have endotoxin levels of not more than
(a) 0.15 EU/ml
(b) 0.20 EU/ml
(c) 0.25 EU/ml
(d) 0.30 EU/ml
Key : C
Q 27 : Bioavailability of a drug from various dosage forms decreases in the following order:
(a) tablets>capsules>solutions>emulsions>suspensions.
(b) tablets>capsules> >emulsions>suspensions>solutions.
(c) tablets>solutions>emulsions>suspensions>capsules.
(d) Solutions>emulsions>suspensions>capsules>tablets.
Key : D
Q28 : Which of the following routes of administration is not parenteral?
(a) SQ
(b) SL
(c) IC
(d) IV
Key: B
Q29 : Other than tablet hardness, which method is used to measure the tablet strength?
(a) Thickness
(b) Weight Variation
(c) Friability
(d) Organoleptic Properties
Key: C
Q30 : Diclofenac tablet coated with cellulose acetate phthalate administered to a patient will release the drug in
(a) Stomach
(b) Oral cavity
(c) Small intestine
(d) Liver
Key: C
Q31 : Saurology is the study of ___________.
(a) Mosquitoes
(b) Snake
(c) Lizards
(d) Cockroach
Key: C
Q32 : Which of the following river does not flow into the Arabian Sea?
(a) Tungabhadra
(b) Sabarmati
(c) Mandovi
(d) Narmada
Key : A
Q33 : Garo Hills is a part of which among the following states of India?
(a) Nagaland
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Manipur
(d) Mizoram
Key : B
Q34 : The Sangai Festival is celebrated in __:
(a) Assam
(b) Manipur
(c) Mizoram
(d) Nagaland
Key: B
Itemcode : DN1005
Q35 : Human Rights Day is celebrated on which of the following day?
(a) 5th December
(b) 6th December
(c) 12th December
(d) 10th December
Key : D
Q36 : Who secured second rank in the recent, ICC women's cricket ratings?
(a) Mithali Raj
(b) Radha Yadav
(c) Smriti Mandhana
(d) Harmanpreet Kaur
Key : B
Q37 : India's first maritime museum is to be established at which of the following sites?
(a) Navinal
(b) Amri
(c) Lothal
(d) Bet Dwarka
Key: C
Q38 : The National Chemical Laboratory is situated in
(a) Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Pune
(d) Hyderabad
Key: C
Q39 : Who from the following won the Nobel Prize for Economic Sciences in 2017?
(a) Michael Rosbash
(b) Jefferey Hall
(c) Richard Thaler
(d) Barry Barish
Key: C
Q 40 : Which of the following countries was recently declared as Polio free by WHO?
(a) Nigeria
(b) Somalia
(c) Pakistan
(d) Afghanistan
Key: B
Q 41: A clock loses 5 minutes every hour and was set right at 11AM on a Monday. When will it show the correct time again?
(a) 11AM on Sunday
(b) 11AM on Monday
(c) 11AM on Tuesday
(d) 11AM on Wednesday
Key: A
Q42 : Find out missing figure (?) of the problem from the given answer figures.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Key : C
Q43 : Introducing a girl, a boy said, "She is the daughter of the mother of the daughter of my aunt." How is the girl related to the boy?
(a) Cousin
(b) Niece
(c) Daughter
(d) Aunt
Key: A
Q44 : Pick the odd one out.
(a) May : January
(b) September : November
(c) October : April
(d) January : December
Key: C
Q45 : Pick the odd one out.
(a) 19 : 380
(b) 15 : 240
(c) 25 : 650
(d) 10 : 100
Key: D
Q46 : In a coded message, SLOW MOVE, GET BACKWARDS, FIRE AWAY is written as VFMD ZMWE, BEN PCTLDCOXU, QHOE CDCI. Based on this coding scheme, spot the codes for following word SALTY
(a) UCFNI
(b) UCFIN
(c) UCINF
(d) UCHIN
Key : A
Q47 In a code language MOBILE is written as ASDFGH, STORK is written as PLSQW. How is MOTORBIKE written in that code?
a) ASLSQDFWH
(b) ASLSQDHWH
(c) ASLSGHQDW
(d) ASLSASFWH
Key: A
Q48 : Prajakta moves towards South-East a distance of 70 km, then she moves towards West and travels a distance of 140 km.From here she moves towards North-West a distance of 70 km and finally she moves a distance of 40 km towards east.
How far is she now from the starting point?
(a) 10 km
(b) 20 km
(c) 30 km
(d) 40 km
Key: A
Q49 : In the following question, various terms of an alphabet series are given with one or more missing terms as shown by
(?). Choose the missing term out of the given alternatives.
IJK, NOP, STU, ?
(a) ZYX
(b) XYZ
(c) WXY
(d) YZA
Key: B
Q50 : Rahul is 15 years elder than Rohan. If 5 years ago, Rahul was 3 times as old as Rohan, then find Rahul's present age.
(a) 32.5 years
(b) 27.5 years
(c) 25 years
(d) 24.9 years
Key: B
Q51 : Pointing to a woman in a photograph a man says "She is the daughter-in-law of the mother of my father's only grand
son". How is the woman related to the man?
(a) daughter in law
(b) Wife
(c) Aunt
(d) mother
Key: A
Q52 : In a certain code language, 'he was not absent' is written as 'jasifera'; 'absent case was not' is written as 'gafe je ra'
and 'no one was absent' is written as 'da gerafe'. What does 'st' stand for?
(a) was
(b) not
(c) one
(d) he
Key: D
Q53 : A certain amount was distributed among six people - A, B, C, D, E and F. B received more than only A. F received more
than B. F received less than C. E received more than C but he did not get the highest amount. Who among the following
received less amount than C?
(a) A, F
(b) A, B
(c) B, F
(d) A, B, F
Key : D
Q54 : How many 3-digit numbers can be formed using the 4th, 7th and 9th digits of the number 937862541 each of which is
completely divisible by 7?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
Key : C
Q55 : The following sentence completion questions contains two blanks. These blanks signify that a set of words has been left out. Below the sentence are four sets of words for each blank, pick the set of words that best reflects the sentence's
overall meaning. Studded star fish are well protected from most ____________ and parasites by __________ surface whose studs are actually modified spines.
(a) dangers...vulnerable
(b) predators...an armoured
(c) threats...fragile
(d) challenges...an obtuse
Key : B
Q56 : The following sentence completion questions contains two blanks. These blanks signify that a set of words has been left out. Below the sentence are four sets of words for each blank, pick the set of words that best reflects the sentence's
overall meaning.
After having worked in the soup kitchen feeding the hungry, the volunteer began to see her own good fortune as
____________ and her difference from the ___________ as chance rather than destiny.
(a) an omen...homeless
(b) a fluke...impoverished
(c) a threat...destitute
(d) a reward...indigent
Key: B
Q57 : Unlike the Shakespearean plays that lit up the English stage the "closet dramas" of the nineteenth century were meant
to be ____________ rather than ___________.
(a) seen...acted
(b) quite...raucous
(c) sophisticated...urbane
(d) read...staged
Key: D
Q58 : Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the
group?
(a) Nickel
(b) Tungsten
(c) Platinum
(d) Diamond
Key: D
Q59 : Rita Colaco, an accomplished pastry chef who is well known for her artistic and exquisite wedding cakes, opened a bakery one year ago and is surprised that business has been so slow. A consultant she hired to conduct market research has reported that the local population doesn't think of her shop as one they would visit on a daily basis but rather a place they'd visit if they were celebrating a special occasion. Which of the following strategies should Rita employ to increase her daily business?
(a) making coupons available that entitle the coupon holder to receive a 25% discount on wedding, anniversary, or birthday cakes
(b) exhibiting at the next Bridal Expo and having pieces of one of her wedding cakes available for tasting
(c) placing a series of ads in the local newspaper that advertise the wide array of breads, muffins, and cookies offered at her shop
(d) moving the bakery to the other side of town
Key : C
Q60 : On weekends, Mr. Olav spends many hours working in his vegetable and flower gardens. Mrs. Olav spends her free time
reading and listening to classical music. Both Mr. Olav and Mrs. Olav like to cook.
(a) Mr. Olav does not like classical music.
(b) Mr. Olav enjoys planting and growing vegetables.
(c) Mrs. Olav cooks the vegetables that Mr. Olav grows.
(d) Mrs. Olav enjoys reading nineteenth century novels.
Key : B
Q 61 : If the product of 4 consecutive integers is equal to one of them, what is the largest possible value of one of the integers?
(a) 24
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 0
Key : D
Q62 : For the final step in a calculation, Harry accidentally divided by 1000 instead of multiplying by 1000. What should he do to correct his incorrect answer?
(a) Multiply it by 1000.
(b) Multiply it by 100,000.
(c) Multiply it by 1,000,000.
(d) Square it.
Key : C
Q63 : H8, L12, O15, S19, ?
(a) U21
(b) W23
(c) V22
(d) Y25
Key: C
Passage :
Read the following passage and answer the questions below : Mikhail Gorbachev's ouster, through dramatic in every respect, is on no account a surprise. Both his foes and his closest friends have been warning him of it with a heightening sense of urgency for the past several months. Its consequences, however are wholly unpredictable. The Soviet Union could well witness protracted violence on a mass scale should the reformists and republics, those which have sought varying degrees of sovereignty for themselves, choose to defy the central authority. It is possible that the country after an initial period of uncertainty, and perhaps even violence, could revert to the pre-perestroika system. Equally uncertain is the course of East-West relations. These are bound to deteriorate through the extent of deterioration must remain a matter of conjecture. Hailed abroad as a leader who had dared to free Soviet citizens from fear, who had enabled the countries of Eastern Europe to become democracies even as they regained their full sovereign status, who had paved the way for the reunification of Germany and who had exposed the moribund and totalitarian character of communism, he appeared, at home, to come under fire from all sides.
Q65 : The following question consists of some Problem Figures followed by other figures marked 1, 2, 3, 4 called the Answer Figures.Find out the correct answer figure that should come next in the sequence of problem figures.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Key: C
Q 66 : Under Gorbachev's term, the Soviet people were
a) Afraid to speak
(b) Indisciplined and lazy
(c) Committed to communism
(d) Not afraid to criticise
Key : D
Q67 : The relations between the Soviet Union and Western countries
(a) are likely to remain unaffected
(b) may improve considerably
(c) will definitely get worse
(d) will fluctuate
Key : C
Q 68 :
The post-Gorbachov era may witness
(a) A more open economy
(b) Reversal of perestroika
(c) Greater role for reformers
(d) Sovereignty for republics
Key: B
Q 69 :
As a result of his policies, the countries of Eastern Europe became
(a) Democratic and truly independent
(b) Authoritarian and inhuman
(c) United and totalitarian
(d) Democratic but with a monarchy
Key : D
Q70 : The removal of Mikhail Gorbachev from power is
(a) Thrilling and extraordinary
(b) Dramatic but expected
(c) Vivid and shocking
(d) Strange and cruel
Key : B
Passage : Read the following passage and answer the question given below: All cultures, even the simplest, seem to be in a continuous state of change. The earlier anthropologists, as opposed to the moderns, assumed that cultures with relatively simple technology and political structure represented only slightly modified survivors of the ancient conditions of our own ancestors and for that reason dubbed them primitive. Also, largely as a device for simplifying their own theoretical studies, they assumed that such cultures were static or nearly so, persisting unchanged over long time periods. Actually, we have plenty of evidence that this is not the case. Not only do all archaeological records, fragmentary as they are, show change though time, but wherever explorers have visited a primitive tribe at intervals of generation or more, their reports show that changes have taken place. Since there is always the possibility that these changes have been set in motion by the first explorer's visit or by contacts with other Europeans during the intervals, the archaeological evidence is more reliable. From this it appears that changes in technology are the only part of culture on which it provides conclusive evidence, were exceedingly slow during the first nine-tenths of human existence. Thousands of years have gone without the introduction of any new tool or appliance. However, during the last twenty-five or thirty thousand years, there has been a progressive speeding up of cultural change. In their operation, the process of cultural change falls into a definite sequence. The first step is the presentation to the society of a potential addition to its culture. This is followed by the new elements' acceptance or rejection. If accepted there are further processes of modification and integration by which the new elements and the pre-existing culture are brought into adjustment. Lastly, there is usually, but not always, the elimination of an older culture element, or elements where functions have been taken over by the new elements. A potential element of culture may be invented or borrowed. In either case, the new idea or appliance originates with some individual or at work with a small series of individuals who have either pooled their ingenuity to solve a problem or contributed to improving details during the developments of the invention. There can be no invention or cultural change without an inventor. The main difference between invention and borrowing is that if the new thing originates within the setting provided by the society and its culture, we refer to it as culture borrowing, The processes of acceptance or rejection or integration will be the same, although the attitude of the receiving society towards the one in which the potential element originated may influence acceptance.
Q71 : According to the passage,
(a) modern anthropologists are more systematic and accurate than earlier ones
(b) a relatively simple society will see progress as spasmodic, resulting from the borrowing of cultural elements
(c) the last twenty years have been societies rapidly becoming cultured
(d) cultural interaction is necessary for the cultural progress of primitive societies
Key: A
Q72 : According to the passage,
(a) foreign cultural elements are never assimilated in their original form
(b) assimilation of cultural element is partly dependent on the attitude of the borrower society to the source society
(c) the process of cultural change is usually random
(d) self-sufficient societies rely on inventions rather than cultural borrowings
Key: B
Q73 : According to the author, earlier anthropologists assumed some cultures to be static because
(a) of insufficient interaction with them
(b) of poor or unreliable analysis
(c) it made their task of studying these cultures more simple
(d) of fragmentary archaeological evidence
Key : C
Q74 : According to the passage,
(a) a culture with simple technologies and political structure is likely to be static
(b) explorers seem to have begun a process of change in many societies
(c) much of the culture seen today is the result of changes in the recent past
(d) all cultures seem to have continuous rates of change
Key : A
Q75 : All the following are essential to the process of borrowing cultural elements, except
(a) the projection of a particular cultural element as attractive to and suitable for the recipient society
(b) the displacement of the cultural element performing the same task in the recipient society
(c) the modification of cultural elements to suit the recipient society
(d) the widespread acceptance of the new element within the recipient society
Key: B
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