1. Nernst equation is generally practice in
a. Complexometric titration
b. Potentiometry
c. Polarimetry
d. Non Aqueous titration
2. Match the following term used for explanation
P. Red Shift 1. Carbonyl group
Q. Auxochrome 2. Increase in wavelength of Absorption
R. Chromophore 3. Amino Group
S. Blue shift 4. Decrease in wavelength of Absorption
a. P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
b. P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
c. P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
d. P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
3. The molar absorptivities for peak associated with excitaıon to the π → π* state generally ranged from
a. 1000 to 10000 L cm-1 mol-1
b. 1000 to 500 L cm-1 mol-1
c. 100 to 10 L cm-1 mol-1
d. 200 to 400 L cm-1 mol-1
4. Which is the correct order of increasing wave number of the stretching vibrations of (1) C-H (alkane), (2) O-H (alcohol), (3) C=0 (ketone), and (4) C≡C (alkyne)?
a. (4) < (3) < (1) < (2)
b. (4) < (3) < (2) < (1)
c. (3) < (4) < (2) < (1)
d. (3) < (4) < (1) < (2)
5. Solochrome black indicator used in which type of titration
a. Non aqueous titration
b. Acid base titration
c. Complexometric titration
d. Gravimetric analysis
6. Aprotic solvents have
a. Basic
b. Acidic
c. No Acidic or Basic
d. Both Acidic and Basic properties
7. In Gas Chromatography, Which detector is preferred when analysis of drugs contain halogens?
a. FID
b. TCD
c. ECD
d. PID
8. The glass electrode used in pH measurement is
a. a metal metaloxide electrode
b. Ion selective electrode
c. A membrane electrode
d. Plastic Electrode
9. In size exclusion chromatography of a mixture of molecules, which one will elute first?
a. The largest molecule
b. The smallest molecule
c. The most polar molecule
d. The most non polar molecule
10. Iodine vapours for TLC are used to detect the
a. Steroids
b. Carboxylic acids
c. Volatile compound
d. Unsaturated compound
11. The drug Bisacodyl is assayed titrant
a. 0.1 N NaOH
b. 0.1 N HCl
c. 0.1 M N(C4H9) 4 OH
d. 0.1 N HClO4
12. An example of strongly acidic cation exchange resin is
a. Quartery polymethacrylate
b. Phenol formaldehyde
c. Quaterly Polystrene
d. Sulphonated polystyrene
13. Which method cannot useful for the bacterial endotoxin test
a. Gel Clot test method
b. Kinetic Turbidimetric method
c. Titrimetric method
d. End point Chromogenic method
14. Which type of bioassay method are not type of Graded response
a. Matching point method
b. End point method
c. Bracketing Method
d. Multiple point method
15. If the drug is unretained by the stationary phase and elute with the solvent front
then Retention factor (k) is
a. K = 0
b. K > 20
c. K is between 1 and 20
d. K > 01
16. According to pharmacopeia, which microorganism used for Vitamin B12 activity
assay?
a. Pseudomonas Aeroginosa
b. Lactobacillus leichmannii
c. Staphylococcus cerevisies
d. Bacillus subtillis
17. Which test organism is used to microbial assay of Tetracycline
a. Bacillus cereus
b. Bacillus Pumilus
c. Bacillus subtilis
d. Micrococcus luteus
18. The guasian peak having Tailing factor (Tf) of
a. Tf = 0
b. Tf = 0.5
c. Tf = 1
d. Tf = 2
19. Densitometric detection of components can be done in
a. HPTLC
b. HPLC
c. UV spectrometry
d. IR Spectroscopy
20. For detection of spots of amino acids on a paper chromatogram, the most widely
used method is
a. U.V. Light
b. Spray with ceric sulphate
c. Spray with ninhydrin
d. Use of radioisotope technique
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21. Which of the following is opium?
a. The dried latex exudates of the unripe incised capsules
b. The dried aqueous extract of the ripe capsules
c. The dried alcoholic extract of the unripe capsules
d. concentrated alcoholic extract of the poppy straw
22. Atropine is a 1:1 mixture of D and L-...
a. Scopoletin
b. Scopolamine
c. Hyoscyamine
d. Belladonnin
23. Which of the following is the common skeleton of physiologically active ergoline
alkaloids?
a. Clavorubine
b. Isolysergic acid
c. 2-Phenylbenzopyran
d. Lysergic acid
24. Which of the following is the reagent for alkaloids?
a. 2,4-Dinitrophenylhydrazine
b. Iron(III)chloride
c. Antimony(III)chloride
d. Potassium tetra iodomercurate
25. Ergotoxine is a mixture of
a. 2 alkaloids
b. 3 alkaloids
c. 4 alkaloids
d. 6 alkaloids
26. Ergot powder gives blue color with
a. Benzaldehyde
b. P-dimethyl aminobenzaldehyde
c. Cinnamaldehyde
d. Formaldehyde
27. Which is not the chemical constituent naturally obtained from Opium?
a. Morphine
b. Codeine
c. Narcotine
d. Heroine
28. Palthe senna is identified with...
a. Absence of anthraquinone glycoside
b. Lamina is denser
c. Presence of anthraquinone glycoside
d. with tapering apex
29. Which is not the biological source of Cinchona?
a. Cinchona calisaya
b. Cinchona officinalis
c. Cinchona succirubra
d. Cinchona indica
30. Clove belongs to following family
a. Rubiaceae
b. Myrtaceae
c. Liliaceae
d. Rutaceae
31. The vitamin essential in tissue culture medium is
a. Pyridoxine
b. Thiamine
c. Nicotinic acid
d. Inositol
32. Trukish opium is commonly known as
a. Chemist opium
b. Druggist opium
c. Chinese opium
d. Chemist and druggist
33. Bara Chandrika is synonym of
a. Rauwolfia tetraphylla
b. Rauwolfia vomitoria
c. Rauwolfia serpentina
d. Rauwolfia canacens
34. Which drug is under the chemical class of indole?
a. Senna
b. Cinnamon
c. Rauwolfia
d. Belladona
35. Vincristine act by which mechanism?
a. Inhibition of microtubule formation in mitotic spindle
b. suppresses the denovo biosynthesis of purines
c. inhibiting the production of THF
d. Immuno suppressant
36. Match the mode of action with antihypertensive drug
P. Block of β- adrenoceptors 1. Lisinopril
Q. ACE inhibition 2. Metoprolol
R. Arteriolar vasodilation 3. Amlodipine
S. Block of α1 adrenoceptors 4. Doxazocin
a. P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
b. P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
c. P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
d. P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
37. Adulterants of Rauwolfia serpentine are distinguished on the basis of:
a. Presence of sclerenchyma
b. Absence of sclerenchyma
c. Presence of parenchyma
d. Absence of parenchyma
38. Certain of the cells of the spongy Mesophyll are filled with microphenoidal (sandy) Crystals of calcium oxalate is characteristic of
a. Rauwolfia serpentina
b. Cinchona calisaya
c. Cassia acutifolia
d. Atropa belladonna
39. Which is not the use of Datura?
a. Anticholinergic
b. Mydriatic
c. Antiadrenergic
d. Control of Motion sickness
40. Entire parts of the following drugs are effective, except:
a. Ergot
b. Belladonna
c. Clove
d. Datura
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41. If an agonist can produce maximal effects and has high efficacy it’s called:
a. Partial agonist
b. Antagonist
c. Agonist – Antagonist
d. Full agonist
42. Which is not the use of ergot?
a. Oxytocin
b. Prevent bb
c. Migraine
d. Laxative
43. Indicate the local anaesthetic, which is ester of para amino benzoic acid:
a. Procaine
b. Cocaine
c. Lidocaine
d. Mepivacaine
44. Which antiepileptic drug acts by inhibiting central effects of excitatory amino acids?
a. Diazepam
b. Lamotrigine
c. Ethosuximide
d. Topiramate
45. Which consideration is not true for phenytoin?
a. It inhibit calcium channel
b. Structurally related to the barbiturates
c. Effective against partial seizure
d. Effective against generalized seizure
46. Which of the following insulin preparation has longest duration of action?
a. Semilente
b. Protamine zinc
c. Lente
d. Isophane
47. Anti-microbial action of penicillin is due to its effect on
a. Protein synthesis
b. Cell membrane
c. Cell wall synthesis
d. DNA synthesis
48. Aminoglycoside inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to
a. 30s ribosomal particles
b. Peptidoglycans in cell wall
c. DNA
d. m-RNA
49. The drug which is potent vanilloid receptor agonist that selectively stimulates
nociceptive nerve endings
a. Icatibant
b. Papaverine
c. Capsaicin
d. Methadone
50. Which enzyme is a constitutive enzyme in most tissue and having a house keeping role in the body?
a. COX – 1
b. COX – 2
c. 5 – HT
d. 15 – HT
51. Which anti-inflammatory drug having most common side effect of skin reaction?
a. Aspirin
b. Acetaminophen
c. Ibuprofen
d. Mefenamic acid
52. Match the antiasthamatic drug with their mechanism of action
P. Salbutamol 1. Bronchodilator
Q. Oxitropium 2. Muscarinic receptor agonist
R. Zafirlukast 3. The cysteinyl – leukotriene receptor antagonist
S. Loratidine 4. Histamine H1 – receptor agonist
a. P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
b. P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
c. P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
d. P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
53. Which drug is non analgesic opiate and used as a cough suppressant?
a. Dextromethorphan
b. Cromoglicate
c. Pholcodine
d. Glucocorticoids
54. Antileprotic action of Dapsone is due to mainly effect on
a. Inhibition of folate synthesis
b. Calcium channel blocker
c. Phagocytosis
d. DNA synthesis
55. Which of the following statement is not true for Isoniazide
a. It inhibit synthesis of mycolic acid
b. Metabolism involves Acetylation
c. Used to prevent bronchospasm
d. It may cuase haemolytic anaemia
56. The cefuroxime drug comes under
a. 1st Generation compound
b. 2nd Generation compound
c. 3rd Generation compound
d. 4th Generation compound
57. Which antimalarial drug is not a blood schizonticidal drug?
a. Halofantrine
b. Mefloquine
c. Primaquine
d. Chloroquine
58. The absorption of water is under the control of ______________ hormone.
a. vasopressin
b. Aldosterone
c. Androgen
d. glucocorticoid
59. Match the mechanism of action of respective vasodilator drug
P. Calcium antagonist 1. Enalkiren
Q. Activate Potassium channel 2. Nitroprusside
R. Act via cyclic nucleotides 3. Minoxidil
S. Renin inhibitor 4. Verapamil
a. P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
b. P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
c. P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
d. P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
60. Amoebiasis is an infection of
a. E. Coli
b. Entamoeba histolytica
c. Leishmania
d. Trypanosoma gambiense
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61. All of the following statements about the extrapyramidal effect of neuroleptics are correct except
a. They are caused by blockage of dopamine receptor
b. They are less likely to be produce by clozapine than by fluphenazine
c. Neuroleptics may cause tardive dyskinesia
d. Haloperiodol does not cause extrapyramidal disturbance
62. In tablet manufacturing process, Mottling refers to...
a. Unequal distribution of color on tablet surface
b. Tablet breaks into two layer
c. Development of cracks in tablet
d. Formation of wings
63. Sterility test for molds and yeasts should be conducted with
a. Thioglycollate medium
b. Agar plates
c. Honey media
d. Glucose broth
64. The oral prolonged drug delivery system release depend upon physical processes EXCEPT
a. Permeation of the matrix by water
b. Diffusion of drug from matrix
c. Erosion of matrix
d. Metabolism of drug
65. Microencapsulation achieved by
a. Membrane permeability
b. Co-acervation phase separation
c. Dissolution of coating
d. Sugar Coating
66. Sidenafil is used for treatment of one of the following disorder
a. Systolic Hypertension
b. Unstable angina
c. Pulmonary Hypertension
d. Hypertension due to eclampsia
67. Cardiac glycosides have the following configuration in the aglycone part of the
steroid nucleus:
a. 5a, 14 a
b. 5a, 14β
c. 5β, 14a
d. 5β, 14β
68. The film type transdermal drug delivery system (TDDS) could have a polymer EXCEPT
a. Ethylcellulose
b. Polyvinyl alcohol
c. Poly ethylene glycol
d. Glass substrate
69. The size of small Unilamellar Vesicle (SUV) Liposomal spherical structure usually
between...,
a. 20 nm – 100 nm
b. 100 nm – 400 nm
c. 1 μm and larger
d. 200 nm – 3 μm
70. Removal and killing of all microorganism is known as
a. Destruction
b. Sterilization
c. Pasteurization
d. Removal
71. The efficiency of moist heat sterilization is tested with
a. Clostridium botulinum
b. Spores of aerobic bacteria
c. Spores of bacillus stearothermophilus
d. Vegetative cells of Bacillus Stearothermophilus
72. Which is called as cold sterilization?
a. Autoclave
b. Gamma rays
c. Infrared rays
d. UV rays
73. Schedule H of the Drug and Cosmetic Act, 1945 contains
a. Antibiotics and Antihistaminic
b. Vaccine and sera
c. Biological and special product
d. Drugs to be sold only on the prescription of a registered medical practioner
74. Narcotic drug and Psychotropic Substance Act was passed in the year
a. 1945
b. 1950
c. 1985
d. 1986
75. The Pharmacy Act was passed in the year
a. 1945
b. 1948
c. 1954
d. 1985
76. The Essential Commodities Act is comes under which department?
a. Department of External affairs
b. Department of Consumer affairs
c. Department of finance
d. Export import
77. What is the full name of IPDMS?
a. Indian Pharmaceutical Development monograph system
b. International pharmaceutical development management system
c. Integrated Pharmaceutical Database management system
d. Institute of Pharmaceutical development management system
78. Which route of drug administration is most likely to lead to the first pass effect?
a. Sublingual
b. Oral
c. Intravenous
d. Intramuscular
79. What is characteristic of the intramuscular route of drug administration?
a. Only water solution can be injected
b. Oily solution can be injected
c. Opportunity of hypertonic solution injections
d. The action develops slower, than at oral administration
80. When Bioequivalence studies are necessary
a. When the new drug is a gas
b. When new drug are to be administered parenterally as aqueous solutions
and contain same active substance in the same concentration and the same
excipient.
c. When the new drug is a powder for reconstitution as a solution
d. Fixed dose combination products with systemic action
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81. All the bacteria fix nitrogen except
a. Cyanobacterial
b. E. Coli.
c. Azobacter
d. Rhizobium
82. The principal structural component of the cell wall in bacteria is made up of
a. Simple protein
b. Glycoprotein
c. Peptidoglycan polymer
d. Complex polysaccharide
83. Infected blood products may produce serum hepatitis due to the presence of
a. Hepatitis A Virus
b. Hepatitis B Virus
c. Hepatitis C Virus
d. Bacteriophage
84. The microorganisms that can enter the body only through an injury is
a. Salmonella typhi
b. Clostridium tetani
c. Clostridium botulinum
d. Streptococcus pyrogenes
85. Class 1 MHC antigen are present on
a. All cells of the body
b. Only cells of the immune system
c. Only on leukocyte
d. Only on skin cell
86. The test which is useful for the identification of M. Tuberculosis
a. Haemolysis
b. Fermentation with sugar
c. Gram staining
d. Zeihi-Neelson staining
87. Humoral Immune system mediated by
a. B-Cell of lymphocyte
b. T-Cell of lymphocyte
c. A-Cell of lymphocyte
d. D-Cell of lymphocyte
88. The direct ELISA test requires
a. Known Antibody
b. Known Antigen
c. Patient Antibody
d. Substrate
89. Antibiotic therapy can cure which of the following forms of syphilis?
a. Congenital syphilis
b. Secondary syphilis
c. Primary syphilis
d. Tertiary syphilis
90. The single most important laboratory test for determining the virulence of
staphylococci
a. Mannitol fermentation
b. The catalase test
c. Detection of coagulase
d. Detection fo penicillinase
91. Effective human vaccines have been produced against
a. Staphylococcus esculin
b. Streptococcus agalactiae
c. Streptococcus pyrogenes
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae
92. Which of the Crude drug is not under the class of organised drug
a. Lectus
b. Flowers
c. Fruits
d. Gums
93. The specific sites on antigen with which antibodies react are called
a. Isotopes
b. Immunogens
c. Epitopes
d. Carriers
94. All of the following enzyme can be seen in viruses EXCEPT
a. Neuraminidase
b. RNA dependent RNA Polymerase
c. Collagenase
d. Protease
95. Which technique currently is used for the sero diagnosis of AIDS?
a. Radioimmunoassay
b. ELISA
c. Two dimensional immunoelectrophoresis
d. Polymerase chain reaction
96. What form of plague is most likely to be transmitted from human to human?
a. Pneumonic
b. Typhoidal
c. Catarrhal
d. Sylvatic
95. Tetanus can be prevented by except
a. Administration of hyperimmune globulin
b. Transplacental passage of antitoxin
c. Injection of tetanus toxoid
d. Specific anti clostridial chemotherapy
98. Resistance to antibiotics is carried on
a. R factor Plasmid
b. Flagellum
c. Slime layer
d. Sex Pilli
99. N2 fixing bacteria in soil were discovered by
a. S.N. Winogradsky
b. John Needham
c. Waddington
d. Walter Reed
100. Yeast is a
a. Bacteria
b. Virus
c. Fungi
d. Algae
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